An article in the Guardian notes that "In 1833, after the abolition of slavery, the British parliament authorised a £20m payment to British plantation owners, the equivalent of £16.5bn today. This was deemed appropriate compensation for their loss of "property", meaning slaves. The slaves themselves received nothing."
St Vincent and the Grenadines are ready to lead demands that UK, France and Netherlands pay reparations for transatlantic slave trade. Do they have a chance of succeeding, and do they have the right to demand money from the countries responsible for enslaving their ancestors?
Get bantering below people.