Guest Contributor on August 06, 2012
March 2nd, 2015
February 27th, 2015
In a word: No.
In two words: Clearly not.
In more words: While he does describe the Sikhs as “unfairly targeted” I don’t see that he’s thereby suggesting that he thinks Muslims are fair game. What should he have said instead? “Incorrectly targeted”? “Mistakenly targeted”? If one wanted to they could wring out an interpretation from either of those that he’s saying it’s correct or not a mistake to target Muslims.
Based on what I’ve read elsewhere, the current understanding is that the killer was probably mad at Muslims and didn’t realize that the Sikhs were someone different. Clearly the speaker is trying to communicate that and used “unfairly” to do so. I think one needs to be looking for something to see it as an endorsement of attacks on Muslims.
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